Free Hit ball in Twenty20s / ODIs

[IanKR]

From what I've seen, this works as follows:

When the bowler delivers a no ball (but only as a result of a foot fault -
not one incurred through fielding restrictions or wicket keeper position),
the next ball is a "free hit", from which the batsman can only be out under
the same circumstances as a no-ball - i.e. Run out, Hit the ball twice,
Handled the ball, or Obstructing field (although most sources incorrectly
cite only Run out as being the only way of getting out on a no ball).

Is this "free hit ball" one of the over, or an extra ball? To put it another
way, if the no ball delivery that gave rise to the free hit is the (attempt
at) the 6th legal delivery of the over, as long as the free hit delivery is
itself legal (neither a no ball nor wide), does this count as the last
delivery of the over, or is there another one following? I understand that
if the free hit delivery is itself a no ball (or a wide), there is a further
free hit delivery that follows - and so on, until a legal ball is delivered.

I'm wondering how these free hits are treated on the score sheet.

[Just been marvelling at Yorkshire's 27 extras conceded against Derbyshire -
6nb, 15w, 3b & 3lb.]

[Ravi Kumar]

Post by IanKR
When the bowler delivers a no ball (but only as a result of a foot fault -
not one incurred through fielding restrictions or wicket keeper position),
the next ball is a "free hit", from which the batsman can only be out under
the same circumstances as a no-ball - i.e. Run out, Hit the ball twice,
Handled the ball, or Obstructing field (although most sources incorrectly
cite only Run out as being the only way of getting out on a no ball).
Is this "free hit ball" one of the over, or an extra ball? To put it another
way, if the no ball delivery that gave rise to the free hit is the (attempt
at) the 6th legal delivery of the over, as long as the free hit delivery is
itself legal (neither a no ball nor wide), does this count as the last
delivery of the over, or is there another one following? I understand that
if the free hit delivery is itself a no ball (or a wide), there is a further
free hit delivery that follows - and so on, until a legal ball is delivered.

Good question. Never paid much attention to that one.

But from what I can recall, there is no change in the fundamental no-
ball law as it applies in tests i.e. if there is a no-ball, the bowler
needs to bowl one additional ball. So if it happens on the last ball
of the over, there is still only one ball remaining to be bowled.

The difference, I think, is that in the ODIs and T20s that remaining
ball cannot fetch a wicket, except through a run out. In that sense,
it is different from the no-ball rule as it applies in tests where the
remaining ball can still fetch a wicket, as long as it is not a no-
ball itself.

This is the exact text:
----
In addition to the above the delivery following a no ball called for a
foot fault (Law 24.5) shall be a free hit for whichever batsman is
facing it. If the delivery for the free hit is not a legitimate
delivery (any kind of no ball or a wide ball) then the next delivery
will become a free hit for whichever batsman is facing it.

For any free hit, the striker can be dismissed only under the
circumstances that apply for a no ball, even if the delivery for the
free hit is called wide ball.
----

Ravi Kumar

[IanKR]

Post by IanKR
When the bowler delivers a no ball (but only as a result of a foot fault -
not one incurred through fielding restrictions or wicket keeper position),
the next ball is a "free hit", from which the batsman can only be out under
the same circumstances as a no-ball - i.e. Run out, Hit the ball twice,
Handled the ball, or Obstructing field (although most sources incorrectly
cite only Run out as being the only way of getting out on a no ball).
Is this "free hit ball" one of the over, or an extra ball? To put it another
way, if the no ball delivery that gave rise to the free hit is the (attempt
at) the 6th legal delivery of the over, as long as the free hit delivery is
itself legal (neither a no ball nor wide), does this count as the last
delivery of the over, or is there another one following? I understand that
if the free hit delivery is itself a no ball (or a wide), there is a further
free hit delivery that follows - and so on, until a legal ball is delivered.

Good question. Never paid much attention to that one.

But from what I can recall, there is no change in the fundamental no-
ball law as it applies in tests i.e. if there is a no-ball, the bowler
needs to bowl one additional ball. So if it happens on the last ball
of the over, there is still only one ball remaining to be bowled.

The difference, I think, is that in the ODIs and T20s that remaining
ball cannot fetch a wicket, except through a run out. In that sense,
it is different from the no-ball rule as it applies in tests where the
remaining ball can still fetch a wicket, as long as it is not a no-
ball itself.

This is the exact text:
----
In addition to the above the delivery following a no ball called for a
foot fault (Law 24.5) shall be a free hit for whichever batsman is
facing it. If the delivery for the free hit is not a legitimate
delivery (any kind of no ball or a wide ball) then the next delivery
will become a free hit for whichever batsman is facing it.

For any free hit, the striker can be dismissed only under the
circumstances that apply for a no ball, even if the delivery for the
free hit is called wide ball.
----

Ravi Kumar

============================

Many thanks for your reply, Ravi.

Of course, what you say makes perfect sense, now I think about it.

The reason I ask this is because I am currently writing a cricket scoring
system in MS Excel/VBA and I need to get clear how these "anomalies" are
treated according to the Laws - and how they're recorded/scored, of course.

I have a very well-thumbed copy of Tom Smith's Code of the Laws, and am
slowly going through all the awkward/non-straightforward occurrences - e.g.
treatment of no balls, wides, when you can be out from a no ball or wide,
when runs can be scored when a batsman is out, when the bowler gets credit
for a wicket (and when not), how byes and leg byes are recorded, off legal
as well as no balls and wides, how to record long/short overs (where the
umpire miscounts fair deliveries), etc etc.

And I was watching the Yorks/Derbys match the other night, and was reminded
about Free Hits. There are so many issues to have to cope with, in a
computer-based scoring system, such that it will only allow you to do what
is correct/legal.

Ian

[jzfredricks]

Post by IanKR
The reason I ask this is because I am currently writing a cricket scoring
system in MS Excel/VBA and I need to get clear how these "anomalies" are
treated according to the Laws - and how they're recorded/scored, of course.

Interesting. I want to, eventually, do something similar (but in WPF
and T-SQL). Would you be interested in collaboration with respect to
clarifying the rules and events etc?

[jzfredricks]

I'm sure it just counts as a normal delivery, but one you can't 'get
out to' (except in the ways you listed).

I assume that if the batsman is caught, the umpire will signal 'dead
ball', and the batsmen will return to the striker's end, even if the
batters crossed.

As for the scorecard, not sure. I don't think there's an 'official'
way to score as such. For no-balls I put a big circle, with the runs
in the middle.

[Ravi Kumar]

Post by jzfredricks
I'm sure it just counts as a normal delivery, but one you can't 'get
out to' (except in the ways you listed).
I assume that if the batsman is caught, the umpire will signal 'dead
ball', and the batsmen will return to the striker's end, even if the
batters crossed.

I doubt it. Since it is a normal delivery, the batsman retains the
runs he ran while the catch was being taken, and the over is called
after that. Or so I think.

Ravi Kumar

[jzfredricks]

Post by Ravi Kumar
I doubt it. Since it is a normal delivery, the batsman retains the
runs he ran while the catch was being taken, and the over is called
after that. Or so I think.

well, in a 'normal delivery' you get 0 runs when caught, regardless
how many times they cross

[Mike Holmans]

On Fri, 22 Aug 2008 01:51:49 -0700 (PDT), jzfredricks

Post by jzfredricks
I'm sure it just counts as a normal delivery, but one you can't 'get
out to' (except in the ways you listed).
I assume that if the batsman is caught, the umpire will signal 'dead
ball', and the batsmen will return to the striker's end, even if the
batters crossed.

Why on earth would you think that? If the fielder catches the ball it
is still in play and the batsmen can (and usually do) continue to run.

Cheers,

Mike